Yes because it indicates full indwelling of the Holy Spirit, and the actuality of the Virtue that is practiced because of this.
On another thread I wrote this:
In Sirach is found:
οὐκ ἰδοὺ λόγος ὑπὲρ δόμα ἀγαθόν καὶ ἀμφότερα παρὰ ἀνδρὶ κεχαριτωμένῳ
You do not see, a word is over a good gift? (better than a good gift)
And (better yet), is that both are encountered in the presence of a person filled of grace.
Being “full of Grace” means a person does all his doings “virtuously”, as “acts of virtue”, as “acts of faith, hope, and love”, whether in word or deed.
Interesting: Mary was just like that definition of a grace filled person in both her words and her actions.
It is only in the Protestant era when grace began to be seen as a “frame of mind within God” rather than the Universally known understanding of Grace as a real given gift that is now contained within the recipient; it is contained for use in living the virtues joyfully, and singing, “My soul magnifies the LORD!” That cannot be sung as a statement of reality within a person except that a person is full, infused, of Grace.
Jerome had to render it as the Church knew it to be with Mary. Many possible alternatives to linguists, yet only one of them posited by Sacred Tradition.
We are “quoting” Gabriel in our Prayer of the Rosary; we are quoting literally from Luke’s writing; we are not in error in that quotation as if we did not understand Greek.
As to how a person would say “Full of Grace” in Greek, translating the other way around, I thought I might try Google Translate (to modern greek of course).
I entered “Gracefilled woman” in English, and what came out in Greek?.. χαριτωμένη γυναίκα. (Charitomene Gynaika)
Same participle as some translators would nowadays say means, “favored woman”, when the “tradition” of the person who created the original phrase (myself) intended “Gracefillled Woman”.
So, when Luke translated Mary’s Aramaic or Hebrew to Greek, he chose the perfect participle, but same word.