Hello! I have been doing research in to the reasoning & theological underpinnings behind the Church’s opposition to female ordination. As such, I had a couple points that I hope I can get some additional information on.
After reading *Ordinatio Sacerdotalis *and Inter Insigniores, it appears that the opposition to female ordination primarily stems from the fact that Jesus selected only men to serve as the Twelve Apostles, and the Church carries on this tradition under the assumption that Jesus had a reason for selecting only men. When applied to the modern hierarchy of the Church, one can understand why bishops are not allowed to be female (i.e. since bishops are the successors to the Twelve Apostles). The part that I’m confused on is why this applies to the other Holy Orders within the Church. I understand why females cannot be bishops, but why does this also apply to priests and deacons?
In reading the available literature regarding the subject, I came across a pro-female ordination web site. While I dismissed most of the literature due to its self-serving bias, there was one point that I wasn’t able to refute: the Twelve Apostles were all Jewish. I’m paraphrasing here, but the web site goes on to question why the Church chooses to follow one of Jesus’ choices (male-only ordination) while ignoring the other (Jewish-only ordination). The tacit message, of course, here is that that the male-only hierarchy practices selective enforcement to serve its own purposes, presumably based on some type of deep-rooted sexism. While I don’t deny that sexism has existed in the Church and continues to exist (after all, human beings are flawed), I have a hard time accepting that argument. However, I am having a hard time formulating an explanation for why the Church enforces the “male-only” portion but not the “Jewish-only” portion. Can anyone help me explain this?
Thanks for any information you can provide!