You know, maybe you should argue for your position yourself instead of trying to get someone else to do your job for you?
For no, just because I didn’t take the trouble to formalise the definition does not mean that it inevitably has to be completely useless.
Also, it would be nice to see it side to side with your definition.
I’m afraid that this your answer does not explain much. In what way is my impression wrong? Maybe I just didn’t make it sufficiently clear that I did use hyperbole there?
Is there some reason why that would be relevant?
Is there even a strong reason to think that this difference is real? Maybe no one actually looked for physical symptoms hard enough?
Not to mention this your claim in another post:
So, do you claim that physical symptoms exist, or that they do not exist?
And if you want to actually argue for your position, you can do it here.
Seriously, if that link has anything that is relevant here (in your opinion), feel free to cite it. And to explain why you think it relevant. And to explain why you consider that source to be good.
I guess a man who thinks he’s Napoleon is likely to have a mental disorder that is not a moral disorder.
So, they are unlikely to mean precisely the same thing, but yes, overlap sure seems to be possible. As is misidentifying one for another.