This seems like the best forum for this question. It occurred to me after reading Fr. Spitzer’s treatment of hell in the third volume of his recent quartet - For God So Loved the World.
The CCC defines hell as the state of definitive self-exclusion from communion with God and the blessed.
Mortal sins seem fairly commonplace: grave matter; full knowledge; full consent. Lord knows I have had my share. But never have I committed a sin (I think) with the intent (consent?) to definitively exclude myself from communion with God, forever.
If that intent is required to fully “consent” to a mortal sin, it would seem as though actual instances of mortal sin would be very rare. On the other hand, if by “consent” we mean mere consent to the act (but not the definitive self-exclusion consequence) it seems as though most mortal sins (with no or imperfect contrition prior to death) would result in eternal punishment when the decedent never intended by their sin to definitively self-exclude themselves from communion with God, forever.
Admittedly, requiring an explicit intent to self-exclude-forever does give one a get-out-of-jail-free card so long as they do not meet that drastic criteria while nonetheless meeting the requirements of grave matter, knowledge, and consent to the act. But it seems somewhat severe to imput to a person a definitive intent to self-exclude from communion with God-for eternity-by way of a fairly commonplace mortal sin such as getting drunk with the boys or looking at porn once, for example.
So tl/dr: Given the Church’s understanding of hell, do mortal sins require consent to definitively self-exclude from communion with God, forever? If not, is it imputed by virtue of consenting to the mortally sinful act itself, with room for God’s mercy or mystery to nevertheless put into purgatory one who dies in a state of what looks like mortal sin but who somewhow still desired communion with Him, even imperfectly, prior to death?