I am resurrecting this topic from another thread - mainly because it is one of my “buttons” and is a sticking point for me that reveals at least one reason how and why Islam is not from God.
It is the issue of Muhammad condoning adultery under the guise of slavery and “owners rights” in Islam when God clearly commanded us in the Ten Commandments “Thou shalt not commit adultery”.
I came across this information in a website: (emphasis mine)
Due to this right of ownership, It became lawful for the owner of a slave girl to have intercourse with her.
It may, superficially, appear distasteful to copulate with a woman who is not a man’s legal wife, but once Shariat makes something lawful, we have to accept it as lawful, whether it appeals to our taste, or not; and whether we know its underlying wisdom or not. It is necessary for a Muslim to be acquainted with the laws of Shariat, but it is not necessary for him to delve into each law in order to find the underlying wisdom of these laws because knowledge of the wisdom of some of the laws may be beyond his puny comprehension. Allah Ta’ala has said in the Holy Quran: ?Wa maa ooteetum min al-ilm illaa qaleelan? which means, more or less, that, "You have been given a very small portion of knowledge?. Hence, if a person fails to comprehend the underlying wisdom of any law of Shariat, he cannot regard it as a fault of Shariat (Allah forbid), on the contrary, it is the fault of his own perception and lack of understanding, because no law of Shariat is contradictory to wisdom.
Similarly, if a slave woman was married previously in enemy territory to a non-Muslim, and is then captured alone, i.e. without her husband, it is not permissible for any Muslim to have relations with her until** her previous marriage is nullified, and that is done by bringing her to an Islamic country and making her the legal possession of a Muslim.** Bringing her into Islamic territory necessitates the rendering of her previous marriage as null and void by Islamic law because with her husband in enemy territory and she in Islamic territory, it becomes virtually impossible for them to meet and live as man and wife. That is why it is not permissible to have intercourse with a woman whose husband is also taken into captivity and put into slavery with her. Another resemblance between the two is that, just as a divorcee has to spend a period called “Iddat” before another man is allowed to marry her, similarly, a slave woman has to spend a period called “Istibraa” before her owner can have coition with her. islam.tc/ask-imam/view.php?q=5482
I’m sorry, but I find this absolutely disgusting and I am still absolutely confounded by how this is not viewed as adultery? It was posed in the other thread that the verses in the Quran just meant that a Muslim could marry and then have sex with a slave-girl, but not have sex with her outside of marriage, but that is clearly not the view that is espoused here. It is also put forth here that the owner/slave relationship becomes sort of a ‘quasi-marriage’ since the owner has to take care of the slave, but it is also clear in this discourse that the slave is NOT a legal wife. Therefore, how is this not adultery?
This first part I quoted basically says that even if your conscience tells you this is wrong, Muhammad said that it is OK, so it must be OK. :mad:
Furthermore, there is a relatively current fatwa regarding this issue: (I am only posting the relavent part. You may read the whole thing here: islamweb.net/ver2%20/Fatwa/ShowFatwa.php?lang=E&Id=89155&Option=FatwaId )
The statement of your friend that the husband can have sex with his wife and his slave-girl only and not with a woman he is not allowed to have sex with is correct, but it does not necessarily mean that he is neglectful about the rights of his wife by committing adultery.
Here is another fatwa on the topic:
The last part also states:
The wife has no right to object to her husband owning female slaves or to his having intercourse with them.
And Allaah knows best.
While I do understand that “slave girls” are not common in many countries so that this phenomenon would be rare in say the U.S., my point is just that it can occur if a formal jihad were to be declared and female captives taken. I just honestly do not understand how this is not viewed as adultery and how this is not viewed as a clear contradiction of previous scripture.
adultery: n adultery əˈdaltəri]
sexual intercourse between a husband and a woman who is not his wife or between a wife and a man who is not her husband.
Please note that I don’t wish for this to become a thread about slavery itself in Islam and hear all about how wonderful Islam was for slaves and freeing them. I am interested in the contradiction to previous scriptures and the issue of adultery with regard to slaves.