In this verse, it uses the word “imputed”. I know that as Catholics, we believe in Infused Righteousness. How do we understand this verse, then?
Which translation are you using? Mine does not used the word “imputed” in anywhere in the verse.
It’s a translation issue:
RSV: So also David pronounces a blessing upon the man to whom God reckons righteousness apart from works
just as David also speaks of the blessing of the one to whom God counts righteousness apart from works
David also spoke of this when he described the happiness of those who are declared righteous without working for it
NIV: David says the same thing when he speaks of the blessedness of the one to whom God credits righteousness apart from works
Even as David describeth the blessedfulness of a man, unto whom good ascribeth righteousness without deeds
This is a non-issue
“As David also termeth the blessedness of a man, to whom God reputeth justice without works”
Its the Protestant KJV that uses the word “imputeth”:
“Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works”
FWIW the Biblos Greek translates to “reckon, count, charge with; reason, decide, conclude; think, suppose” - so I don’t think this verse can be used to fight the “infused” vs “imputed” argument.
Interesting aside - the actual word, logizomai, is a form of the word logos - the word John used to define Jesus, the “Word” in John 1. . .