Romans and Greek Orthodox's understanding


#1

Concerning Romans 7: 1 Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as **IT/HE/LAW **lives?

How does the Greek Orthodox churches see the understanding of HE vs. Law.

Origen understood it as the law (law of sin, death, and flesh, I think).

THANKS!


#2

ὁ νόμος | κυριεύει | τοῦ ἀνθρώπου | ἐφ’ | ὅσον | χρόνον | ζῇ

the law | rules | (over) the man | for | as long as | the time | (that) he lives

The Greek is pretty clear: it’s talking about the life of the man. Moreover, the following verses make it clear that Paul is talking about the death of persons, not the death of a law. The example is about marriage ending when a spouse dies, and his teaching is about how being under the Law ends through our death in Jesus Christ.

Origen understood it as the law (law of sin, death, and flesh, I think).

Do you have a reference for this assertion? I’d like to have a chance to read it…


#3

THANKS!

Dr. Scheck’s translation of Origen’s commentary on Romans.

This is on page 19 volume two.

Do you not know, brothers—for I am speaking to those who know the law—that the law exercises dominion over a man for as long a time as IT lives?

Also, on page 23 of the same volume, But in what he has said, “The law exercises dominion over a man for as long a time as IT lives.”

Also This bit of commentary might be helpful: haydock1859.tripod.com/id151.html.

THANKS!


#4

I think saying for the “life of the law” is mistaken. Divine Law and Natural Law do not have expiration dates. They are the same today as they were a thousand years ago and will be in the future. Positive Law is informed by Divine and Natural Law but it is made by men. It can be struck down, but Positive Law is not what is being referenced.


#5

HE means?


#6

He means man.


#7

Does any person know, other than Origen, did early Greek writers understand Romans 7.1 in the same manner?


#8

Any further help?


closed #9

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