To begin, I apologize if this is the wrong place to be posting this thread but it seemed like the best fit to me.

With that said, my situation is the following: I’ve had two Bibles and a rosary blessed by the priest at my former parish. At the time I wasn’t very familiar with the proper blessings to be said over objects, but since then I now realize that this priest did not give the formal blessing, but simply sprinkled these objects with holy water and recited a more informal blessing. He is a very devout man and I have no doubt that he gave them a sincere blessing, but my question is are they still considered sacramentals even though the blessing wasn’t actually the formal version? I know that the Church teaches that the righteousness of the priest doesn’t matter when it comes to things like the Holy Eucharist or the Sacrament of Reconciliation. But there is a certain form that needs to be followed in each of these Sacraments to make them valid, correct? So the same logic would apply to blessings and sacramentals, right?

I feel pretty awful asking this because, again he is a wonderful priest and I feel like asking this question is calling into question his devotion to the Lord or his ability to perform his priestly duties. It’s just that I want to be sure that these objects are sacramentals now. I hope this question didn’t come off as confusing as I fear it has. Also, if there are any priests or deacons on the forums who see this I would especially appreciate your insights into this.

Yes it’s valid, no worries.

DISCLAIMER: The views and opinions expressed in these forums do not necessarily reflect those of Catholic Answers. For official apologetics resources please visit