I just heard someone say that the RCC used to teach that you were only allowed to have sex when the possibility of conception was there. This differs from just being open to conception. Has anyone ever heard this? I hadn’t.
That is not true. A man and woman can validly marry even though they are both infertile and as a married couple are allowed to have sex.
The problem with “I just heard” is that a source is never provided for the allegations. If someone makes a claim you should ask for the source document supporting any claim. If they cannot provide it then you know it is just hot air.
This was a podcast so I had no way of asking where they got it from. I was 99.9% certain it was wrong but thought I’d ask just in case.