While reading an apologetics article about the three categories of laws in the Old Testament (moral, judicial and ceremonial) I noticed that the forbidding of sexual intercourse during a woman’s period is mentioned in the context of obvious moral laws against homosexuality, incest and bestiality (Lev. 18:19 & 20:18). That seems pretty clearly to label it (sex during menstruation) as a mortal sin.
As far as I know (which may not be very far) the Catholic Church does not forbid sex for married couples during a wife’s period, and Natural Family Planning, which requires sex only during infertile periods to avoid pregnancy, almost seems to *encourage *this as it is a naturally infertile time. What is the Catholic Church’s rationale for her rules regarding sex during the monthly period, and how would the condemnation of this in Leviticus 18 and 20 not be placed on the list of universal moral laws–which carry over from Judaism into Christianity–if it is listed amongst other sins which clearly are mortal? Why isn’t sex during the monthly period a grievous sin?
Another important note, and one which supporters of homosexual tolerance in the Church often raise, is that if sex during menstruation is listed with incest and yet is not a mortal sin where the latter most clearly is, then the same argument can be used for homosexuality since it is mentioned in the same place.
Any answers appreciated!