Sex with wife while pregnant


#1

I have a question. Let’s say there is a husband and a wife. And the wife is pregnant. And for whatever reason, they don’t have intercourse but engage in sexual acts outside of intercourse that don’t end with with the man ending in the woman. Would that be sinful? Or for the matter mortally sinful?

Is it okay for this couple to engage in sexual acts outside intercourse? She’s pregnant so one couldn’t say that this couple is not open to life. Could these acts be considered “unitive”?

This seems to be one of those “gray areas”. What are your thoughts?


#2

Yes.

No.

No.

All properly ordered use of our genitals are both objectively unitive and procreative. That means they must end where they are supposed to. The fact that she is pregnant is not relevant.

It is not gray at all.


#3

Yep he is right


#4

You provided no evidence for your answers. Can you cite any documents of the Church to back up your answers?

Thanks for the reply.


#5

This question comes up on CAF all the time. Here are a few threads dealing with the topic of sex during pregnancy:

forums.catholic.com/showthread.php?t=831717&highlight=sex+while+pregnant

forums.catholic.com/showthread.php?t=826896&highlight=sex+while+pregnant

forums.catholic.com/showthread.php?t=846734&highlight=sex+while+pregnant

1ke is right. The same “rules” apply to sex whether a woman is pregnant or not. Post-menopausal or not. Infertile or not. The rules apply to every person at every state of life - you have to be having sex with your spouse, and you can’t deliberately make sex into something it’s not (by purposefully avoiding the joining of man and woman, or by altering the joining by using contraception.)


#6

From the Catechism of the Catholic Church:

2366 Fecundity is a gift, an end of marriage, for conjugal love naturally tends to be fruitful. A child does not come from outside as something added on to the mutual love of the spouses, but springs from the very heart of that mutual giving, as its fruit and fulfillment. So the Church, which is “on the side of life,” teaches that “it is necessary that each and every marriage act remain ordered per se to the procreation of human life.” “This particular doctrine, expounded on numerous occasions by the Magisterium, is based on the inseparable connection, established by God, which man on his own initiative may not break, between the unitive significance and the procreative significance which are both inherent to the marriage act.”

(emphasis mine)

More can be found here: Catechism section for married couples


#7
  1. May a married couple engage in natural intercourse during the wife’s pregnancy, or during her period?

Yes, natural intercourse is permitted between a husband and wife during those times.

Although the natural marital act does not result in a new conception during pregnancy, the act itself is still inherently directed toward procreation. Natural intercourse is the type of sexual act that is inherently ordered toward the procreative meaning, as well as toward the marital and unitive meanings. And so the marital act remains moral even when conception cannot occur due to pregnancy.

There are two common reasons that Catholics ask if marital relations is moral during the wife’s period. First, some ask because St. Thomas Aquinas wrote that marital relations is not moral during menstruation. However, his opinion was based on a misunderstanding about reproductive biology, in that he thought harm would result to the offspring. Given the medical knowledge that no such harm results to the offspring from marital relations during menstruation, his opinion on this point is in error.

Second, some ask because they mistakenly think that conception cannot occur as a result of sexual relations during menstruation, and they mistakenly think that marital relations is not moral if procreation cannot possibly result. But as long as the sexual act is the type of act inherently directed at procreation, i.e. natural genital-to-genital intercourse, the act retains the procreative meaning intended by God for marital relations. For it is the inherent ordering of an act toward its moral object, not the attainment of the moral object, that causes an act to be either good, or intrinsically evil.

Even when natural intercourse is unable to attain procreation, it remains ordered toward procreation, and so it retains its proper procreative meaning. Natural marital relations is moral, even when the husband and wife are unable to conceive, because the essential moral nature of the act remains inherently ordered toward the threefold good intended by God for sexual relations: the marital, unitive, and procreative meanings.

catechism.cc/articles/QA.htm

Here is the whole article on what can be done according to the catechism. As long as it ends inside of her anything foreplay wise is fine.


#8

Out curiosity, why would you not want to have intercourse during this time? It’s a time where you can have sex whenever you want as much as you want since your wife is already pregnant. Think of it as an added bonus.


#9

I cannot accept the answer that you have given me from your source above. For one, I cannot find an imprimatur on the site. And for two, it has strange links on it such as; “A refutation of Jimmy Akin’s heretical errors on predestination, grace, salvation.” Akin being an Orthodox Catholic apologist makes me raise an eyebrow when his name is mentioned in such a statement with the term “heretical”.

I’ve learned to be careful of what I read on the Internet. I question this source you have provided and encourage you to do the same.


#10

Mgrey82, quick question for you:

Why would you want to withdraw from intercourse when the wife is pregnant? When she is not pregnant, if there are serious reasons to avoid pregnancy, it is licit to abstain from intercourse during her fertile periods (NFP) but while she is pregnant, she cannot be impregnated again. She already is.

What’s the point of withdrawing (which, by the way, is gravely sinful if sexual acts are done without completing the act) when the wife is pregnant?


#11

That source is NOT a good recommended source.


#12

Who said I was involved in the scenario?

If one is pregnant, they’re obviously open to life. They cannot become un-pregnant from oral sex or mutual masturbation, let’s say. Or any more pregnant for the matter. So, if it is a sin, what is the sin and why?

I’m not saying it is or is not. I’m saying I don’t know.


#13

Yes such would be gravely sinful. Climax for example can only take place with in the “context of the marital act” (and that of the husband must be while physically united with his wife in the normal marital act).


#14

See post number 6 in this thread which gives you the necessary reference from the Church. It is a sin against the sixth commandment.


#15

Why?


#16

Added.


#17

Such is the* nature *of the marital act (it must be ordered to procreation). Even an infertile couple need to not engage is such gravely disordered acts but engage in the marital act as intended by God.

Misuse of such would be an act of lust.

2366 Fecundity is a gift, an end of marriage, for conjugal love naturally tends to be fruitful. A child does not come from outside as something added on to the mutual love of the spouses, but springs from the very heart of that mutual giving, as its fruit and fulfillment. So the Church, which is "on the side of life,"151 teaches that "it is necessary that each and every marriage act remain ordered per se to the procreation of human life."152 "This particular doctrine, expounded on numerous occasions by the Magisterium, is based on the inseparable connection, established by God, which man on his own initiative may not break, between the unitive significance and the procreative significance which are both inherent to the marriage act."153

scborromeo.org/ccc/p3s2c2a6.htm#III


#18

To add to this (or restate it in different words): to intentionally avoid the joining of man and wife is an attempt to alter what sex is, to change what it is fundamentally about. To go against the design of God is sinful.

As I said in my previous post, this applies to all people at all times in all situations. It is remarkably consistent.


#19

Yeah I just noticed that sorry for that. When I looked at the website address it seemed official


#20

This seems to say that every marital act should be ordered to procreation, and I agree. However, the woman is pregnant. The couple cannot un-procreate or procreate again. Therefore the marriage act is not ordered to procreation even if it is intercourse with the man climaxing inside the spouse.

Where does the CCC teach something like; “oral sex is sinful outside of intercourse” or “every marital act must end in intercourse” or something along those lines. The language in that particular paragraph seems ambiguous. For example, what if one or either spouse cannot physically have intercourse but wish to engage in intimate acts. Explain to me how that is gravely sinful.


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