I am perplexed and would any appreciate insight into the following marital dilemma...
I fully understand that the goal of a marital sexual act is to have fully completed, potentially life-giving intercourse. However there seems to be a distinction between where a wife's orgasm can take place versus a husbands.
My question pertains to a situation where a husband and wife, fully open to life, are planning on completing vaginal intercourse during their love making. They are also striving for the goal of a simultaneous orgasm (a la "Holy Sex"). In the process of preparing the wife for the unitive embrace she is receiving manual stimulation, during which the husband unintentionally pre-maturely ejaculates.
Due to male recovery time, and the unique nature of each marital "session," it is uncertain whether or not the husband will be able to complete intercourse (round two). Should all manual stimulation be ceased at this point, despite the intention and hope of vaginally intercourse?