Sexual Morality Questions

So I’ve been working on making the changes to my life to be a stronger Christian and Catholic since coming back to the Lord this past July. Right know, knowledge is power and I cant get enough right now in terms of how to live my life pleasing God. I feel now is the time to begin really learning about sexual morality in marriage. As people may have seen from my threads before, one of my major problems was lust and masturbation. Unfortunately I’ve had sex with two girls; I’ve gone and confessed to this and am sorry for it. But with that in mind, I have some questions on sexual morality in marriage.

I know the basics. No condoms, birth control, cheating, orgy, etc. I also know that you are not supposed to masturbate or do anything that doesn’t lead to intercourse. The idea of sex is for creative purpose and to unify a couple. I know that things like masturbation and oral sex can be used as foreplay. And if a man prematurely ejaculates during this its not a sin. But here is where the questions begin. Can a man orgasm from oral sex willingly when the intention is to continue and orgasm again in a creative sense? What I mean is, can an orgasm be allowed during foreplay if it leads to a second one that is procreative?

Also, are there any resources to be found for Natural Family Planning for males? I see information all over for women, but cant seem to find any for men.

Sadly, no.

For women it is not quite the same, but for men at least the sexual climax marks the conclusion of a sexual act. Besides being this in a subjective sense and a practical sense, it is also the definitive moment when it becomes potentially fertile if the integrity of the sexual act has been maintained. Even if you immediately begin again, the first sexual act was still distorted in a way that made it closed to life.

By the way, an argument could be made that oral sex is still disordered even when used as foreplay for an act which is subsequently corrected. Incorrect orifice.

Does anyone engage in this debate anymore? One could then argue that no part of the body should touch, caress, etc. the genitals except the genitals of the spouse. Does anyone argue this?

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