[quote=fineca]One sola scriptura website claims this passage is an irrefutable proof for sola scriptura:
Now these things, brethren, I have figuratively applied to myself and Apollos for your sakes, so that in us you may learn not to exceed what is written, so that no one of you will become arrogant in behalf of one against the other." 1 Corinthians 4:6
Please explain what that passage means if it doesn’t prove sola scriptura. (don’t give me all kinds of against sola scriptura arguments, I know enough of them and am not for sola scriptura, I just want to know what that passage really means)
First of all as TJ said above, if Paul meant what he said then why did he write a SECOND letter to that Church?
St John Chrysostom explains here:
…This, if you mark it, is the reason why he says here, “These things have I transferred in a figure unto myself for your sakes, that in us ye may learn not to be wise above what is written,” signifying that if he had applied his argument in their persons, they would not have learnt all that they needed to learn, nor would have admitted the correction, being vexed at what was said. But as it was, revering Paul, they bore the rebuke well.
[2.] But what is the meaning of, “not to be wise above what is written?” It is written, (St. Matthew chapter 7, verse 3) “Why beholdest thou the mote that is in thy brothers’s eye, but considerest not the beam that is in thine own eye?” and “Judge not, that ye be not judged.” For if we are one and are mutually bound together, it behooveth us not to rise up against one another. For “he that humbleth himself shall be exalted,” saith he. And (St. Matthew chapter 20, verse 26 and Matthew chapter 20, verse 27; St. Mark chapter 10, verse 43; not verbatim.) “He that will be first of all, let him be the servant of all.” These are the things which “are written.”
“That no one of you be puffed up for one against another.” Again, having dismissed the teachers, he rebukes the disciples. For it was they who caused the former to be elated.