Son of "Man"?


#1

Okay, first of all, please note that I’ve got this respiratory crud that’s going around and when I’m sick, I come up with some really strange ideas. I don’t know if this is a smart question or a dumb one, lol.
Anyway, I was wondering…why do we call Jesus the Son of “Man” when He was, in no way, the son of any man? Why isn’t he called the Son of Woman, considering that he was a woman’s son?
Sorry if this is a stupid question or if it’s in the wrong place. My brain is fuzzy.


#2

Remember, the word ‘man’ is generic, referring to the human race. Christ was Son of Man by taking on a human nature.


#3

Thanks for answering. :slight_smile: Still, why the generic “man” and not the specific “woman”? Yeah, He took on human nature, but that made Him a man, not a son of one. Again, fuzzy head produces strange thoughts.


#4

Without looking it up, I seem to recall that Jesus often refers to himself as “son of man.” To an extent, I believe, this is part of what is referred to as the “messianic secret,” where Jesus does not wish his identity to be fully known–yet. The same reference likely appears in the Old Testament as well, but I don’t want to do research on that tonight. So it is a shorthand way of identifying himself without publicly proclaiming is messianic identity. Yet.

Besides, it gave T.S. Eliot, the greatest poet of the 20th century, the opportunity to use the phrase in “The Waste Land:”

What are the roots that clutch, what branches grow
Out of this stony rubbish? Son of man,
You cannot say, or guess, for you know only
A heap of broken images, where the sun beats,
And the dead tree gives no shelter, the cricket no relief,
And the dry stone no sound of water.


#5

Ahhh. Yeah. He does say it, doesn’t He? I warned you–fuzzy brain! Thanks very much for clearing that up. If I could think, I’d have known that already, lol.


#6

In the New Testament, “Man” in the phrase “Son of Man” is the greek word “Anthropos,” which refers to mankind, with no hint of gender. The phrase harkens back to the Old Testament, however, where it is used many, many times. The word “Man” in the phrase “Son of Man” in the Old Testament is the hebrew word “adam,” which actually means the same thing as “anthropos,” still with no gender.


#7

Here is the messianic reference JimG referred to:

Daniel 7:13 I saw in the night visions, and behold, with the clouds of heaven there came one like a son of man, and he came to the Ancient of Days and was presented before him. 7:14 And to him was given dominion and glory and kingdom, that all peoples, nations, and languages should serve him; his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom one that shall not be destroyed.

Nita


#8

As Nita nad JimG have said, the title is messianic. Here’s more info on it from the Catholic Encyclopedia:

Son of Man


#9

Please note that the only one to use this name “son of man” is our Lord. He was pointing to the prophets. Others at that time used many other names including son of God. Interesting!!!

George


#10

No, this is an excellent question. Jesus chose this title for Himself because it indicated a heavenly being, and it was not used in the Messianic prophesies. He was trying to show that His idea of Messiah was not any of the one’s commonly thought (military leader, rebel/insurgent, judge and condemner of wrongdowers).

Dan 7:13-14
13 I saw in the night visions,

and behold, with the clouds of heaven
there came one like a son of man,
and he came to the Ancient of Days
and was presented before him.
14 And to him was given dominion
and glory and kingdom,
that all peoples, nations, and languages
should serve him;
his dominion is an everlasting dominion,
which shall not pass away,
and his kingdom one
that shall not be destroyed.


#11

Thanks for all the neat insights everyone. :smiley:


#12

Well, Stephen does in Act 7:56, but he is citing Jesus own words. Stephen must have been blessed to see what Jesus fortold during His trial before the Sanhedrin.

Peace,

Ryan :slight_smile:


#13

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