I recently learned that speaking languages that someone has never learned is a mark of demonic possession. When I learned this, I was really confused, because didn’t the Apostles in the New Testament speak in languages they hadn’t previously known in order to spread the Gospel, and that was the work of the Holy Spirit? What is the difference between these two instances? Is there a reason for their eerie similarity?
It’s true that this is believed to be a mark of possession. The 1614 Rituale Romanum says “Signs of possession may be the following: ability to speak with some facility in a strange tongue or to understand it when spoken by another; the faculty of divulging future and hidden events; display of powers which are beyond the subject’s age and natural condition; and various other indications which, when taken together as a whole, build up the evidence.” (Part 8, Chapter 1, #3). The Roman exorcist, Fr. Gabriel Amorth also collaborates this.
So, in addition to the questions above, how are we supposed to discern which is demonic and which is not?