Works are works. There is no work that is not covered under the works of the law. Not one.
Your making James say something he didn’t sorry.
Actually I’m not. You have James and Paul contradicting each other.
Also contradicting other Scripture.
8 Therefore do not be ashamed of the testimony of our Lord, nor of me His prisoner, but share with me in the sufferings for the gospel according to the power of God, 9 who has saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was given to us in Christ Jesus before time began
Your faith alone is traced back to Luther and not any closer to the Apostles.
My faith is traced back to Christ.
Here is an excerpt from CAF to help you better understand your fallible interpretation.
"When Catholics point this out, many Protestants attempt damage control by attacking the faith being discussed in James 2, saying it is an inferior or bad faith. Some do this by labeling it “dead faith.” They treat “faith without works is dead” (vv. 17, 26) as if it were a definition and say, “If faith does not produce works then it is dead faith. It is this dead faith that James says won’t save us.”
What does James say?
14 What does it profit, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but does not have works?
James is speaking of someone that SAYS they have faith, which anyone can do.
THEN goes on to say "But someone will say, “You have faith, and I have works.” Show me your faith without your works, and I will show you my faith by my works.
Can you show your faith without your works? No. THIS is the point James is making.
But reading the context shows that James is not using the phrase as a definition. He is not defining the term “dead faith.” That term does not appear in the text. He is stating a fact, not offering a definition. The interpretation flies apart at the seams when we test it by substituting “dead faith” wherever the text mentions faith.
I’ve never seen it as a definition.
James is differentiating between saving faith, that PRODUCES works, and those that simply give lip service, those that SAY they have faith.
Saving faith always produces works, hence the reason Jesus said by their fruits you shall know them.
The same reason James says “show me your faith without your work, and I’ll show you my faith BY my works”.
On that reading, people would be boasting of having dead faith (vv. 14). James would be making the redundant statement that dead faith without works is dead (vv. 17, 26) and offering to prove that dead faith is barren (v. 20). He would be offering to show people hisdead faith by his works (v. 18) and commending people (“you do well”) for having dead faith (v. 19).
Not quite right. James is offering to show his faith BY his works, asking others to show their faith without their works. The point being that you cannot show your faith unless it has works.
Finally, he would be telling us that Abraham’s dead faith was active with his works (v. 22) and that Abraham believed God with dead faith and it was reckoned to him as righteousness (v. 23).
Abraham didn’t have dead faith. Dead faith is no faith. God grants our faith. He does not grant dead faith.
He can speak of how Abraham’s intellectual assent was active with and completed by his works (v. 22) and can conclude that man is not justified by intellectual assent alone (v. 24). James views intellectual assent as good thing (“you do well,” v. 19a), but not as a thing that will save us by itself (vv. 14, 17, 20, 24, 26)."
Right, because intellectual assent is not saving faith. Saving faith changes a person. If there is no change, there is probably no faith. This is the jist of what James means.
Abraham was justified in God’s eyes before Issac was ever born. He wasn’t justified before God BECAUSE he was willing to offer his son. He was willing to offer his son because he was justified.