Just curious here— what effect, if any, would the lack of consumation have had on the legality of the marriage between Mary and Joseph? Obviously, the Jews did not know that marriage had not been consumated (an error still committed by many modern day Christians) and they assumed that Jesus was the biological son of Joseph. However, from a historical perspective, was consumation a requirement for a “legal” marriage?
We must remember that the term “Spouse of the Holy Spirit” is just an term used to express the familial relationship between the Holy Spirit and Mary. It is an expression, not meant to be confused with legal marriage between to human beings. While we are on earth, we can never understand the sublime beauty of the all that occured between the Spirit of God and Mary at the moment of the Incarnation. This is a kind of intimacy with God (I am NOT using the word intimacy in sexual sense) that a wife would have with a husband. Be that as it may, Catholics do not mean to imply that Mary and the Holy Spirit walked down the aisle together. “Spouse” is just the closest word we could get to the sacred relationship between Mary and the Holy Spirit. Similarly, the saying “I am a daughter of God” is an expression of familial relationship. Indeed, Jesus’ use of the word “Abba” regarding our Father was a profound insight into God’s desire to have a close familial relationship with His “children”.