I’ve found an inconsistency that I’m not sure how to resolve. I think I’m misunderstanding something, but I’m not entirely sure what. Hoping someone can clear things up for me:
-The Apostles were given authority directly from Jesus, which included both what they taught and what they wrote, “by word of mouth or by letter.” (2 Thessalonians)
-This “word of mouth” forms the basis of Sacred Tradition
-St. James was an Apostle, and thus this should apply to him as well.
-St. James was also, for a time, a member of (or quite possibly the leader of) the circumcision party. (Galatians 2, Acts 15).
If James’s word of mouth teachings are part of Sacred Tradition due to his being an Apostle (most likely the same guy as James the son of Alphaeus, from what I understand), how is it that he was allowed to teach that circumcision was necessary for Gentile converts to Christianity and the one must follow the entire Jewish law to be Christian? Obviously he changed his mind after hearing Peter, Paul, and Barnabas’s testimonies, but that doesn’t change the fact that his “word of mouth” teachings, for a time, did not reflect true Catholic teachings. How do I square this with the concept of Sacred Tradition?