Let me see if I can explain it this way. Sin is like a nail driven into a board. Absolution removes the nail but the board is still harmed. The debt that is owed to God is like the hole in the board. The board, on its own, will never be able to repair itself. Because we cannot repair ourselves, and we are no longer perfect because of the sin (which has been forgive though its mark is still there), we need purgation.
Okay so, the thing that removes the hole in the board is suffering? This is the temporal punishment? Purgation = suffering?
The Church talks is terms of debts and treasury of merit because we can understand that. The reality if beyond what we can understand
I thought it talked about it that way because it actually quantifies the process. Isn’t there a cleric in the vatican in charge of the Holy Treasury or something like that? Don’t indulgences come with actual numbers of days or years of penance served? Couldn’t you actually keep a leger it’s so detailed?
All sin has suffering attached. As far as when it occurs, that depends on the sin and on when we die.
Of course all sin brings a measure of spiritual death which could be described as de facto suffering, but does the RCC require the suffering as a necessary condition for the sin to be completely forgiven?
Let me give you an example. Two women have abortions. Both regret it and go to confession. Both are absolved. On the way home, one dies in a car accident. The other does not. The one who lives goes through life with sorrow for the loss of her child and mental and emotional issues that she as to deal with. If both were forgiven, why was one spared any further suffering from the sin? Catholic thought on this is that the other may need to spend time in purgatory because of the need for justice.
“need for justice” So God does require the suffering then. The one who died… the “hole in the board” to use your earlier analogy, this required suffering to be healed?
Also, would not both women have been given penances to perform? If they were to both have performed the prescribed penances then one would die than one woman would suffer more than the other anyway. Are you saying that each and every sin has an amount of suffering attached to it and in the eternal scheme of things each sin committed will be suffered for accordingly? So that at the end of things even if the woman who died did her penances the priest gave her she would still serve in purgatory because “devine justice” (which I assume is dictated by God) dictates one woman can not suffer more for the same sin than another has suffered? So they must all suffer equally who commit the same sin? Is this true?
The sin itself is forgiven at absolution. That does not mean the issues arising from it are gone.
Those issues carry over past death, and suffering is the solution to them? Is this correct?