Why the Book of Enoch is excluded from the Christian canons? what are the reasons?
Well, because it’s apocryphal. Too recent to be authentic. The oldest parts of it were written about 300 B.C., the most recent part is dated from the first century B.C. Even the Jews didn’t include it in their canon, and therefore it was also not included in the Septuagint.
First off. Which book of Enoch are you talking about?
It’s included in the biblical canon of the Ethiopian Orthodox Church.
I know. Its wikipedia but its actually not a bad article.
well, I have read some part of it, therefore I can think of one reason which makes me suspicious, the part where it says Angels came down from heavens to mate with women!, it’s illogical to think of spiritual species doing a lust with human body!, also JESUS said in (Mark 12:25):
*“When the dead rise, they will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.”
The book which says Angels came down from heavens to mate with women.
Although it’s a very informative book which gives explanation to many things BUT I cannot accept that Angels lust behind women!!!
The Book of Enoch was referring to Genesis 6:4
The Nephilim were on the earth in those days–and also afterward–when the sons of God went to the daughters of men and had children by them. They were the heroes of old, men of renown.
The Book of Enoch tries to “fill that gap” by further trying to explain that the Nephilim (e.g. known as the Titans in Greek Mythology) were the product of the mating of the Angels (sons of God) with human females (daughters of men). Some versions of the Kaballah argue that the great flood happened to clean the Earth from the Nephilim because they were “stealing” the “space” of the men.
I have always wondered if the Greeks actually worshipped Angels, fallen or otherwise. I have heard that Enoch may have been excluded because some Jews feared it would lead to Angel worship. They obviously did not want Judaism to degenerate into a polytheistic religion like that of the Greeks. Although I am sure this is one reason for its exclusion, I am guessing the main reason is that the book of Enoch was most likely written long after the man Enoch died.
Thanks for the info, but do you have authentic source which says that the “sons of God” = Angels?
Ok, I don’t know what you will consider “authentic”, but we have an example here: Genesis, chapter 6 - United States Conference of Catholic Biships.
Let’s take a look at the footnote in 6:2
- [6:2] The sons of God: other heavenly beings. See note on 1:26.
Now, let’s take a loot at Genesis 1:26.
- [1:26] Let us make: in the ancient Near East, and sometimes in the Bible, God was imagined as presiding over an assembly of heavenly beings who deliberated and decided about matters on earth (1 Kgs 22:19–22; Is 6:8; Ps 29:1–2; 82; 89:6–7; Jb 1:6; 2:1; 38:7). This scene accounts for the plural form here and in Gn 11:7 (“Let us then go down…”). Israel’s God was always considered “Most High” over the heavenly beings. Human beings: Hebrew ’ādām is here the generic term for humankind; in the first five chapters of Genesis it is the proper name Adam only at 4:25 and 5:1–5. In our image, after our likeness: “image” and “likeness” (virtually synonyms) express the worth of human beings who have value in themselves (human blood may not be shed in 9:6 because of this image of God) and in their task, dominion (1:28), which promotes the rule of God over the universe.
Another reference. mt.net/~watcher/enoch5.html
Now, our Catholic Encyclopedia says:
The statement (Genesis 6:1) that the “sons of God” married the daughters of men is explained of the fall of the angels, in Enoch, vi-xi, and codices, D, E F, and A of the Septuagint read frequently, for “sons of God”, oi aggeloi tou theou.
We should be aware, however, that this is only one of the possible interpretations as to who the “Sons of God” is. The Church Fathers, for example, interpret the “Sons of God” as being the descendants of Seth and the “daughters of men” as the female descendants of Cain.
I do agree. But you realize this is main idea taught in much of christianity, maybe not catholicism, that this is reason why God destroyed the world with the flood in Noah’s day because of the fallen angels mating with women?
Also, isn’t Lucifer supposed to be a fallen angel? :shrug:
I will go with this interpretation …
That would make sense, considering that the “fallen angels mating with women” story immediately precedes the flood. But on the other hand, the flood story unambiguously states the reason for the flood is the human wickedness.
But doesn’t fallen angels mating with women idea contradicts Mark 12:25
No, it does not… take a closer look at this, it comes from our Catholic Encyclopedia