I am currently debating with a Church of Christ pastor. I said the Catholic Church is not, nor claims to be inspired (in the sense that the Bible is inspired). I distinguished between inspiration and infallibility. He proceeded to quote from Pius the IX:
"Wherefore, in humility and fasting, we unceasingly offered our private prayers as well as the public prayers of the Church to God the Father through his Son, [font=Arial]that he would deign to direct and strengthen our mind by the power of the Holy Spirit. In like manner did we implore the help of the entire heavenly host as we ardently invoked the Paraclete. Accordingly, by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, for the honor of the Holy and undivided Trinity, for the glory and adornment of the Virgin Mother of God, for the exaltation of the Catholic Faith, and for the furtherance of the Catholic religion, by the authority of Jesus Christ our Lord, of the Blessed Apostles Peter and Paul, and by our own:[/font]
“We declare, pronounce, and define (the doctrine of the immaculate conception)….”
Pius IX, [font=Arial]Ineffabilis Deus (1854)[/font]
How should I respond to this? I looked up the word inspire in the dictionary and it means* to affect *(which is how I would apply it to the Bible) and it can also mean to guide which is how I would assume Pius IX is using it. Would this be accurate reasoning or are there other ideas?
Thanks and Peace,