The Catholic doctrine of intention.

The Roman Church teaches that when a priest celebrates a sacrament or performs any ecclesiastical rite, he must have in his mind an intention to celebrate that sacrament or to perform that rite or else the sacrament or rite is null and void and no good. This means that when a priest is celebrating Mass, unless at the time he has in mind an intention to celebrate a real Mass, it is no Mass at all. In such case, if the priest did not definitely intend to celebrate a real Mass, the wafers were not consecrated at all, and the people who received them, desiring to receive the Communion, did not receive the Communion at all, because the wafers had never been consecrated. How, therefore, does a Roman Catholic know whether he is ever receiving the Communion?

When a person goes to confession, unless the priest in his mind definitely intends to give absolution, the penitent receives no absolution, although the priest says the words of absolution. How, therefore, can a poor penitent ever know that he has received absolution? He cannot! He can never be sure that the priest has absolved him.

When a Roman bishop ordains a priest, unless at the time he has in his mind a definite intention to ordain that man a priest, the supposed ordination is no ordination at all, and the supposed priest is not a priest, and all his Masses, absolutions, and other priestly acts are null and void and no good. The bishop might have been thinking of something else, giving no thought or intention to his acts, or maliciously withholding any intention to ordain (because he disliked the candidate for ordination), in which case the supposed ordination is no ordination. Under this Roman doctrine of intention no supposed Roman bishop can be sure he was ever consecrated bishop. No priest can be sure his own bishop is really a bishop, and no layman can be sure his own priest is really a priest.

How unBiblical and wrong is this doctrine present in the Catholic Catechism? And how can a church let a person be always in doubt and never be sure of anything.

homer:

Can you point me to the exact passage in the Cathechism of the Catholic Church where the Doctrine of Intention is mentioned? I can’t seem to find it.

Thanks.

Here ya go

Homer,

Before you claim something being taught by the Catholic Church, first you should state where it is in the Cathecism or any document coming from the Magisterium. Don’t rush into conclusions and use it to argue to “prove” your point by using some books or articles not even approved by the Church.

To be honest, I haven’t even heard that term “catholic doctrine of intention” from any other except from you.

Pio

One more thing, don’t take something out of context just to make an argument, OK? You may twist its meaning if you do.

Thanks and God bless,

Pio

[quote=Melonie]Here ya go
[/quote]

This is not from the catechism. It is from Thomas Aquinas’s Summa.

This is not from the catechism. It is from Thomas Aquinas’s Summa.

But is it a doctrine of the church as alleged by Homer?

Pio

I think the quoted portion of *The Summa Theologica of St. Thomas Aquinas *speaks very well for itself. I see no problem when I read it.

Especially note within the Reply to Objection 2: “… while in the words uttered by him, the intention of the Church is expressed; and that this suffices for the validity of the sacrament…”

Shouldn’t this have been placed into “Apologetics” instead of “Non-Catholic Religions”?

homer, you can’t be serious…:whacky:

Homer apparently cut and pasted an article from “The Conversion Center”:

4cc.org/intention.htm

Homer…

That IS NOT how Intention is explained…

you must be either

Dyslexic

Ignorant on blatently obvious text explanation

Or purposely twisting and taking out of context the proper meaning of things.

Or all of the above.

I’m a little confused. One thing I am sure of and that is anything Homer posts, I take with a grain of salt.

What is this thing on intention in the Council of Trent? Is it at all accurate? Can someone clarify this? THanks.

[quote=go Leafs go]I’m a little confused. One thing I am sure of and that is anything Homer posts, I take with a grain of salt.

What is this thing on intention in the Council of Trent? Is it at all accurate? Can someone clarify this? THanks.
[/quote]

The people behind the web site 4cc.org are mistakenly informed and are obviously attempting to influence some away from the Catholic Church through their flawed understanding.
Authorized discussion of Catholic Doctrine can be found at newadvent.org/summa/406408.htm (note the imprimatur)
See my post #8 above.

Of course, I am really fairly new (not having gone to RCIA yet).
But I think it is clear.

“Consequently, others with better reason hold that the minister of a sacrament acts in the person of the whole Church, whose minister he is; while in the words uttered by him, the intention of the Church is expressed; and that this suffices for the validity of the sacrament …”

My paraphrase: As long as the Priest ministering the sacrament is saying what the Church wants him to say, the intention of the Church is expressed and is sufficient to carry the day. Even in the rare instance that the Priest is being mean spirited with a contrary intent in his soul.

Homer, again, admit when you are wrong. Or at least contribute to a post that you start. You’ll at least have some respect from others.

I’ve seen this happen more than once…Homer posts something and not long another poster is able to find the source of where he took it from. Homer is neither original nor sincere, in my opinion.

Joel

[quote=joelmichael]I’ve seen this happen more than once…Homer posts something and not long another poster is able to find the source of where he took it from. Homer is neither original nor sincere, in my opinion.
[/quote]

Gotta love Google
:thumbsup:

Please keep up your questions homer. It did cause me to think and grow a lot.

I Praise God for answers and for homer.

:blessyou:

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