I’ve been reading his epistle and a few things have popped up that I don’t know how to read nor interpret them. For reference, I’m reading and using the ‘RSV Catholic Edition’.
1:v26 - Therefore God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, to the dishonouring of their bodies among themselves. (Same idea in verses 26 & 28)
This makes me think of when God hardened Pharaoh’s heart - I don’t understand what this means in its actual realisation. Does it mean that God said, ‘Yeah, do whatever you want. I’ve tried and tried again but you still disobey me. I don’t care enough to give you any more graces.’ I know that grace is a free gift, but is this verse pertaining to only the unbelieving pagans? Does it apply to Christians to? Does it mean that people who have lived this sort of a life for a long time cannot be converted anymore?
2:v9 - There will be tribulation and distress for every human being who does evil, the Jew first and also the Greek,
v13 - For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified.
How is this reconciled with the notion of salvation through faith and good works? The implication of this seems to be that good works is paramount and faith isn’t.
5:v13 - sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law.
This is the one that strikes me the most because it seems like the forgiveness offered by Christ once one believes is limited. That is to say that when Jesus told Peter to forgive his brother 70 x 7 times, that was on the basis that his brother was under the Law as a Jew (not a Christian); but once that person believes, forgiveness gets brought down to something closer to 7 times?