Does anyone know of any apparitions of the Blessed Virgin in which She affirmed this doctrine? In Her apparitions at Lourdes, she affirmed the doctrine of her Immaculate Conception. How about the Assumption?
First off, it has to be understood that dogmas do not need any “confimation” by any apparition of any saint including Mary. Mary does not determine dogma since God didn’t give that charism to her. And no apparition carries the weight of doctrine or dogma. They fall under the heading of devotions which one can accept or not.
Having cited that, Mary certainly can refer to dogma concerning her if God wishes her to. She apparently did at Lourdes as a sign that she was who they had believed her to be–the Virgin Mary. Bernadette never referred to her Lady as the Virgin Mary because Mary did not identify herself as such–not until she called herself “the Immaculate Conception.” Mary did not take authority to define dogma to herself, but rather used a title recently given to her that only Church authorities would fully grasp, since Bernadette herself had never been taught about the Immaculate Conception in her studies with her nurse or with the nuns.
As to the Assumption, a case could be made for Mary alluding to the Assumption at Fatima when the three children saw her rise into heaven. But in that apparition Mary never referred to herself as the one who had been assumed into heaven, but then the Church hadn’t yet confirmed that belief as dogma which it did in 1950.
Again, we do not look to apparitions to affirm doctrine or dogma. That is the duty and responsibility of the Magisterium.
If any apparition is real, then her body has been raised from the dead. Why would I say this? Because if it were not raised and reunited to her soul, she would have no body with which to appear, and she does not have the powers of angels to assume shapes where there is no body.
If only her soul is in heaven, she would not have the ability to appear as Jesus did after his resurrection. If she has appeared, then her body was indeed raised.
What do you make of the fact that Mary seems to change in appearance from one apparition to the next? Mary of Guadalupe doesn’t resemble the Mary of Lourdes.
First, just to clarify, we do not have a photograph of either, and the best we probably have is descriptions given, then an artist interpreting the descriptions (though I don’t actually know the details of this and am speculating). If I were a French artist and heard that a woman appeared, I would paint a French woman’s image, etc. If either said her face shone with light, then it would be a woman of my heritage in the painting with suggestions of light coming from her complexion.
This is all speculation. but my first answer about her appearing at all without resurrection follows the logic of Thomas Aquinas’ descriptions of the soul after death and the soul reunited to the body in the resurrection.
She could not appear had her soul not reunited with her risen body.
I was under the impression that the image of Guadalupe was not painted by a human artist and that Bernadette was consulted before the image of the Lourdes apparition was produced (though she apparently wasn’t totally supportive of the finished product.)
It doesn’t necessarily follow that because the BVM has appeared, that she was assumed into heaven. People have claimed to have seen saints, the devil, angels, and souls from purgatory, none of which was assumed bodily into heaven. Moses appeared in the transfiguration. I don’t recall any scripture describing his assumption, although there are Jewish stories that say, yes he was.
Mary was assumed into Heaven because the Church (with the full authority of God) states this is an infallible teaching. Who am I to call God a liar? I don’t need a private revelation to prove anything.