Can someone please explain the meaning behind these verses? Did God want this, or allow his chosen people the Jews to lawfully engage in such acts? Leviticus 25: 44-46, Exodus 21 7-11.
So none has to bother looking them up the verses say:
“However, you may purchase male and female slaves from among the nations around you. 45 You may also purchase the children of temporary residents who live among you, including those who have been born in your land. You may treat them as your property, 46 passing them on to your children as a permanent inheritance. You may treat them as slaves, but you must never treat your fellow Israelites this way."
7 “When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. 8 If she does not satisfy her owner, he must allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. 9 But if the slave’s owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave but as a daughter.
10 “If a man who has married a slave wife takes another wife for himself, he must not neglect the rights of the first wife to food, clothing, and sexual intimacy. 11 If he fails in any of these three obligations, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment."
Well yeah the Israelites engaged in slavery and thought of it as a normal part of life. Everyone in the world did.
Ok, my point is, did God approve these things or where they just adopted or typically done by the Jews?
Also, as an atheist friend asked me, if God did not approve of these things, and yet spoke to Moses, why didn’t He tell Moses to END these things?
Just questions that are stumbling me.
While this article is more about anti-Catholics targeting the Church specifically it does pertain to the situation
Thanks, the second article is interesting.