I’d like to have your thoughts on this pastor’s blog arguing that Pope Francis made “the greatest fallacy in the Catholic Church ever” by stating in one of his sermons that Christ is a man and not a spirit. For him that’s wrong because Christ is actually a “spirit,” then quoted some scripture passages to support his personal interpretation. This pastor’s blog is just easy-to-read, won’t waste time, but you can see his blunders. Look at his interpretation for instance:
Now, if the son is equal to the Father and the Father is a spirit, it follows that the Son must also be a spirit!
God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.
From the bosom of the spirit Father came the Son.
No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
He was begotten by the spirit Father.
So also Christ glorified not himself to be made a high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, today have I begotten thee.
Strictly biblically speaking, a spirit begets a spirit!
That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
It is clear that the present pope is against this truth! He even said that Jesus is not a spirit but a person! Cannot a spirit, be a person in spirit?
2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
God the Father being a spirit is a person, and Jesus Christ is the express image of his person! But this does not classify Jesus Christ in the way that we know persons.
Here’s the link
elisoriano.com/blog/greatest-fallacy-roman-catholic-church-ever/. I think he’s the one here committing heresy by rather denying the absolute humanity of Christ. I don’t have the time to all look up his “heavily misunderstood” verses, not a scripture scholar at all, so could you point out where he’s made his own fallacy? Thanks.