The Presence of Christ


How do I respond to a professor’s claim that Jesus is just as present in the poor (meaning in other people) as He is in the Eucharist? While I do believe God is found in all people (after all, we are all created in His image), I have a hard time believing that Jesus is equally present in others as He is in the Blessed Sacrament.

Any thoughts? Thanks!



Note that Jesus is not concurrently present in the Eucharist (con-substantiation), but rather the bread and wine become fully Jesus (trans-substantiation).

If Jesus is present within the poor, that is not the same as the poor becoming wholly Jesus.


Jesus is Really, Truly, and Substantially present in the Blessed Sacrament, The Blessed Sacrament IS Jesus, Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity.

He is Spiritually present among the poor, He is united to their sufferings and difficulties. But it is not possible to say that this poor person IS Christ, Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity.


Ask him if he falls to his knees and worships these poor. And if not, why not?

And as was pointed out, Jesus is not in the Eucharist. The Eucharist is Jesus.


Awesome answer!:thumbsup:


Awesome answer, yes, but probably something disingenuous to actually ask the guy. The professor can’t possibly be Catholic, so he obviously doesn’t share our reverence for the Eucharist. I doubt he falls to his knees and worships the bread and wine in his church either.

I’ll give the Professor one thing: If he doesn’t believe/subscribe to the idea of Transsubstantiation, his claim makes much more sense than if he does. For example, for a Lutheran to say “Christ is similarly present in the poor as he is in our communion host” would not be odd or “wrong” coming from a Lutheran. If a Catholic said that though, they would be gravely mistaken.


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