"The Son of Man"


Jesus used the term ‘the son of man’ (which in Aramaic also means ‘the son of Adam’) to refer to Himself.

This draws on the way a divine human being was pictured by both Daniel and Ezekiel, and also shows His status as the ‘second Adam’, the one who would restore the covenant lost at the fall.

I was wondering though, was this term ‘the son of Adam’ also used by Jewish people to refer to an illegitimate child, i.e. one whose father’s name was not known? Meaning, in effect, ‘the son of any man’? All Jewish rabbis, and indeed all Jewish men, were known by their paternal name, i.e. Moshe ben Shlomo = Moses, the son of Solomon. Jesus can’t be referred to in such terms, having no earthly father. Did people call Him ‘the son of Adam’ at first in a mocking way?

This is just a guess, a wild stab in the dark. I’d be interested in any evidence one way or the other.

Please note, I am not questioning the divinity of Christ or the virginity of Mary, I am merely posing a question on how Christ was ‘perceived’ by others, and how He turned those perceptions on their head.


Nah, I doubt anyone knows Jesus is technically a bastard (i.e. born out of wedlock). For one thing Mary would have been stoned to death if people (other than Elizabeth and her like) knew she conceived out of wedlock? Her protestation that she was still a virgin? Her people couldn’t have cared less (i.e. they would have believed she was lying thru her teeth).
For another thing it is written in the gospels that Jesus’ fellow hometowners believe He had bros and sis. So there you are- Jesus wouldn’t have been called ‘son of Adam’.

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