"Theou mou" in Apocalypse chapter 3


I have this question coming from time to time, and it doesn’t seem that difficult, but I would like to have som other opinions. So in the BOok of Revelation, Jesus refers to God as “my God”. I understand that He did also while He was on earth, and after the Resurrection too (but before the Ascension). But I don’t see why the Son, in His glory, would continue to refer to God as “His God”. Funnily, one could ask: Is God the God of God?

I always understand it to mean “God the Father”; I also know there are translations which read “God” without the posessive pronoun. Therefore I checked the Greek.

What do you think? Thank you


“Him who overcomes I will make a pillar in the temple of my God. Never again will he leave it. I will write on him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which is coming down out of heaven from my God; and I will also write on him my new name.”
Rev 3:12

When on earth Jesus said “my God, my God why hast thou forsaken me” he was quoting Psalm 21/22 depending on your bible. Its a very sad and moving Psalm.

As for Revelation, note that he gave him His new name. You can’t call someone by the name of God who is not already God.


Since Jesus still possesses a human nature even in heaven, He still properly speaking can call the Father his God.

That’s how I’ve always understood it anyway.


He can for sure, but I was wondering why* my God* and not my Father or the Father or even I as it happens later.


I was just listening to a talk that mentioned why specific names of God are used in the Bible.

God (Elohim) is used when you’re talking about God from the point of view of Gentiles who aren’t under the Covenant, the whole world, etc.

The Name or its substitute, Adonai (YHWH or the Lord) are used when you’re talking about the Covenant, Jews under the Covenant, etc.

Father is more a name for stuff that comes under the New Covenant.

(There’s a lot of mix and match, and of course there’s parallelism where both are used, because parallels what Hebrew poetry is all about. But if you pay close attention, you can usually see the shade of meaning that the author meant to convey, by using one term here and another term there.)

So even though Jesus is talking to a church composed of those already Baptized, it sounds like He is making it clear, Bible-style, that His offer extends to people who haven’t been baptized yet and people who are still pagans, even.

Also, Jews in the Bible who say “My God” or “the God of my people” are emphasizing that they are not talking about other people’s random false gods. They are talking about the real true God Who can do stuff, and does do it.

So the people who “say they are Jews and are not,” and/or the Christians who don’t overcome - they don’t really worship the real God, even though they seem like it. Pagans are eligible to be pillars before they are… unless they repent.

I’m sure there are better answers elsewhere, but those are my thoughts.


This part of your post is something I was aware of; but it seems odd that Jesus talking to John and to Christians has to say “The One God of Israel” or “the One true God”

Thank you :slight_smile:


Psalms 110:1 has something similar. “The LORD says to my Lord”

In Revelation, Jesus is described as the Son of man Rev 1:13. Representing Man, it is perhaps not inappropriate for him to address God as “my God” Rev 3:12. However, Jesus did not hesitate to address his Father from time to time Rev 3:5, 21.


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