I’d like to know how Catholic apologists would handle these three questions:
The story of the conception of Samson in Judges 13:2-onward is remarkably similar to the story in the NT of the conception of Jesus. This is also the most likely source of the nazarite/Nazarene confusion that occurs in Matthew 2:23, in the NT. It is my belief that the early Christians copied this story and applied it (slightly modified) to Jesus. What do you think of the remarkable similarities?
In Luke 4, Jesus is reported to have attended synagogue and been called to read from a section of Isaiah (Luke 4: 16-21).
Now in Orthodox Judaism, the practice has always been that on certain Sabbaths and holydays, a certain Torah (Law) portion is read, and then the Haftorah (which is a section of the Prophetical writings.) There are specific Torah portions and specific Prophetical portions to be read for each specific Sabbath/holyday. This has not changed in several thousand years.
Yet, when I looked up the portion of Isaiah which Jesus is supposed to have read, I find that it is not a portion for any Sabbath or holyday! Why do you think this is?
And finally, in the NT Jesus says many very profound things, and in one portion of the NT, it says, “He spoke with authority, not like one of the scribes” (Mk 1:22). Because he did not properly attribute his words to the rabbis he heard/learned them from (as they are recorded in the Talmud), he led others to think they were his own sayings when they were not (I have seen many examples of things Jesus said, in their original form, by the original authors, in the Mishnah, which is part of the Talmud, a body of Jewish rabbinical teachings which predate Jesus.)
If you pick up a volume of the Talmud, you will often see things such as, “Rabbi Bar Chanina said in the name of Rav Huna”, and so on. This is because in Judaism, it is considered stealing (plagiarism) to repeat what a teacher taught without giving proper credit. Yet Jesus did this, leading others to believe they were his original sayings when often, they were not.
How therefore, can Christians claim “Jesus kept the Law perfectly” when he clearly violated the command against theft?