I remember seeing Tim Staples give a talk one time in California, and he said that when Jesus said to Mary (about John) “this is your son” He used the plural. Is Staples saying that Jesus said “this is you sons”? How else are we to understand Staples’s point? And then, how come no translation uses the plural?
I don’t think Mr. Staples would have said that.
The Greek from that passage (John 19:26) uses the singular (υἱὸς, or huios).
The Greek plural “sons” is υἱοὶ (huioi).
Because if Staples said this, he is outright wrong. Huios in John 19:26 is singlular in all Greek traditions.
IF he said such a thing.
I use to have an eight tape cassette tape by him on Mary
I would think there’s a good chance you misheard.
But one of the cool things about Catholic Answers is their radio program. Why not call Tim and ask him? On the top of this list, there’s some dates he’s going to be on the show in July: catholic.com/radio/shows/browse/all/all/Tim%20Staples/2015
If real, it may have been a misspeak and an editing error (meaning that they didn’t fix his misspeak)
I once heard him on the radio show mention that when John says “from that hour, the disciple took her into his home” the Greek word for “his” there is plural. Maybe that’s what you were thinking of? That would make more sense since this is actually true. John uses the plural “ta” there instead of the singular “autou”.
As far as why no translation uses the plural even though it is in there, most likely because it makes more sense narratively speaking to leave it in the singular. Of course, this loses the deeper theological message, but translations can only do so much.
That must have been what he meant.
So it should read “the disciple took her into their home”? Like the home John was staying at? Hmm, ye it does seem to indicate that she was a treasure to be shared, or watched over