First reading is Rv 11:4-12. It switches from present tense, to future tense, to past tense. What gives?
What exactly troubles you about the reading?
It’s Revelation. Not meant to be read literally.
Just confusing. The Church is so particular and exact in the words it uses, I’m wondering what the reasoning is behind changing tenses.
It;s written much like a tone poem…very figurative language, lots of allegory, etc.
Here’s a helpful overview:
I believe that Revelation is intended to be relevant for us as Christians and our struggles with “the world” for all times past, present, and future. Thus, I would have to say that the use of all three verb tenses is not unusual.
May God bless you all!