Does anyone here understand today’s reading? I don’t get how disciples could be baptized, yet not know of the Holy Spirit. How were they “re-baptized”, and how was it different from the first if they had already been disciples?
They did not receive a Christian Baptism, but rather they received the baptism of John the Baptist which was one of repentance. This baptism was “a unique baptism in the desert in view of the repentance and pardon (Mk 1:4p). . .The baptism of John set up only a provisional economy: it is a baptism of water which is preparatory to the Messianic baptism in the Holy Spirit and fire,” Xavier Leon-Dufour, Dictionary of Biblical Theology. It was an external ritual signifying an effort of conversion of the baptized (much as many Protestant denominations look upon baptism today).
AFTER Jesus arose He commanded people to become Christians by being “Baptized in the Name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit” (Matt 28:18) This is the Baptism the men Paul was talking to did NOT have.
BEFORE Jesus started preaching John the Baptist had people baptized as a outward testimony that they believed John’s teaching that Jesus (the Messiah) was coming.