I know all about the cousin argument, and the half brother argument (not by blood - Joseph’s children from an earlier marriage, and how there is no word for cousin in the language the NT writers spoke, and when it was translated “relative” was simply translated as brother.
But how do I reconcile Paul using the word cousin for Barnabas AND brother with reference to James the brother of Jesus? How do I reconcile this?
See the non-Catholic argument here:
Problem with the Aramaic/Hebrew/cousins argument is that the NT books were written in Greek; and there is a specific word for “cousin” in Greek, used in Colossians 4:10
Μᾶρκος ὁ ἀνεψιὸς Βαρναβᾶ
Mark the cousin of Barnabas
cousin = anepsios (English phonetics)
If they were cousins, the NT writers would have used them.
Also, there are other words for close relative, cousin, as in Luke 1:36 “your relative Elizabeth”
Ἐλισάβετ ἡ συγγενίς
How do we understand Paul specifically using both “cousin” AND “brother”?
Why wouldn’t St. Paul, a native Greek speaker use the term “James, the Cousin of our Lord”? He had the word for cousin on his tongue right?
Please help! I’m confused… how do I refute this to a Protestant? how do I under stand Paul using both words???