Two questions - about Jesus after the Resurrection and about how we end prayers

I did a search and can’t find an answer to these questions:

After Jesus’s Resurrection, He appeared first to Mary Magdalene and then several times to the apostles. Mary Magdalene didn’t recognize Him; neither did the apostles at first. Why not? Didn’t He look like himself? And if not, why not?

Someone told me that after the Resurrection, Jesus was in a different kind of Body, a “glorified Body” or something like that, but his definition of that term was that the Lord’s Body glowed with light. If that’s true, then He would have attracted a lot of attention and all who knew Him would have recognized Him.

I have another question. Why do we often end prayers with a phrase like “through Jesus Christ,” or “in Jesus’ name.” When praying to saints, I understand why we might say that. But why do we do it when praying to God the Father? Yet we don’t do it when we say The Lord’s Prayer, which is what Jesus taught us to pray.

Thanks for your help.


Just like the Road to Emmaus story in Luke, the disciples eyes were prevented from seeing Him. That’s because they needed the eyes of faith. Many times people are blinded by their own inabilities and will not see even the obvious. In the Road to Emmaus story they did not recognize Him intil the breaking of the bread. That was familiar to them and that was their “aha” moment. And then Jesus vanished because He remained with them in the Eucharist.

Yes, while Jesus did have a resurrected, glorified body, He was recognizable to His apostles and He appeared to 500 others. So He did make Himself seen but at first He was teating the faith of those closest to Him.

John 14:6 is clear that no one goes to the Father except through Jesus.While the Father created, He did it through the Son. And while the Father hears our prayers we acknowledge that the Son is His Word and all things are done through Him.

Since the Lord’s prayer was given to us directly from Jesus, just praying it assumes that those words are prayed through Him…

This is my understanding:

We have fallen and dead, we don’t even know how to pray.
If we were to pray, our prayer are so nonsense that God the Father would hear them but would not answer them because they are no according to Truth.

Jesus is the Son of the Father who pleases Him.
Whatever he askes he receive from his Father.
So if you want to receive from the Father, you ask like Jesus because only will you be able to ask what can be given, what is right to ask.
And asking ‘like’ (as if you were an other) Jesus is not possible because there can not be more than one Logos (Truth).
We can not be an other Truth, we can only conform to the one that is God the Son
So conforming to (this) Truth is being in Christ.
And praying in truth is praying in Christ because he is the truth and only then can we be pleasing.
I believe we mention ‘through/in the name of Christ’ when we are not sure to be perfectly in conformity with Truth, so that Christ redemption may make up for our imperfection.

And we don’t have to mention ‘through/in the name of Jesus’ when we pray our Father.
This is because, here we are sure these words are perfect. They don’t need to be made perfect because they are the very words of Jesus. He tought them to us. We are praying in him.

Our Father is the prayer of the Church. We say ‘our’ not ‘my’, because it is all of us in the Body of Christ. And since we are the Body of Christ, we are Christ himself praying this prayer. And Christ can not say’ in the name of Christ.

God bless

The second question (“why do we pray in Jesus’ name?”) is John 14:13

Because I go to the Father: and whatsoever you shall ask the Father in my name, that will I do: that the Father may be glorified in the Son.

So it became traditional to end prayers with “in Jesus Name”

Of course St. Paul tells us that Whatever we do, we should do it in the Name of the Lord. The point being that we are His Body - we live for Him, we act for Him.

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