** I apologize for any bluntness in this question, but I want to make sure I am understanding the teaching correctly. Some of which is entirely a new discovery to me despite being a cradle Catholic. **
I have been reading various posts on this forum and have had my eyes opened to some things regarding sex and Catholic beliefs that I really did not realize before. I had heard of Christopher West’s book in the past, but am now very interested in reading it since I have realized that there is so much more I can learn from it.
My specific question is in regards to some of the information I’ve seen regarding the wife’s climax. With the caveats that the couple is married, sex is completed as intended with the husband inside his wife, and this is all done within the confines of of an act intended to end that way (i.e. not just something for the pleasure of the other outside of the unitive, procreative marital intercourse) is the following a correct understanding of the Catholic teaching :
*]The woman can climax before (by touch/oral stimulation), during, or after (by touch/oral stimulation) sex although the ideal would be for mutual climax during intercourse
*]Touch/oral stimulation during foreplay is fine as long as the man does not climax (the woman can)
*]Sex is not complete until the man climaxes inside his wife
*]It is not sinful if the act is completed properly and if the woman does not climax at all before/during/after (although it is desirable for her to do so)