OK, this was a thread I was looking for all along.
Since the question has already been put out once, I’ll elaborate my own case.
My boyfriend has been married twice, both of them to unbaptised women, and he was not baptised himself. When he went to speak to the local parish priest about annulments and the process, he was told he may not need one due to the fact that none of them had been baptised, plus his first marriage was ‘witnessed’ by a JP who was also a Pagan priestess. The priest called it ‘Privelage of the Faith’. Both of his former marriages were in error out of immaturity on his part, and manipulation by the ‘other parties’. Another post I read while searching mentioned ‘non-canonical form’ being a reason for a non-baptised parties marriage to be invalid. (PLEASE! Correct me if I am wrong!!!)
I am not… well, let’s just say ‘on good terms’ with my own parish priest, and DB lives 3 states over in a rural area with only one local priest who is busy as busy can be (though he did finally break down and contact a larger parish a half hour away- it’s worth the drive time), so my mother suggested to start here.
Apologies if I end up posting the same question multiple times in different ways- I am just, well, clueless- I’ve never been married, divorced or annulled myself! I know people who have, but , heh, they’re all asleep right now, while I can’t get to sleep without doing something about it. I’m so stressed out because of those infamous words, “I Don’t Know”! I found some stuff from Tribunals, but it’s like reading a bill headed to Capitol Hill! Please, I need something in plain dummied-down English!