I’m sort of in a predicament here. :shrug: There’s a man on facebook backing a theory that the way that St. Paul’s epistles are worded through the New Testament indicate that Our Lord, Jesus’ revelations to him provided an order of the complete cancellation of the Act of Baptism, bringing a complete stop to it because the “baptism with fire, and the Holy Spirit” by the Lord Jesus, Himself, was sufficient and thus made water baptism redundant and void. ( o_0! ) He said,
“if the Church would only recognize the updated revelations of St. Paul that baptism is no longer necessary at all, then all this confusion about the way baptism is administered would stop altogether. He said, “one Lord, one faith, one baptism” which means water is no longer necessary at all. What (The Lord) Jesus said when They were all on earth (with his disciples) and how He commands after He was in Heaven are a big difference. They are not the same.”
It’s adamant that what all Churches are doing is useless because the Lord told St. Paul to cancel the Act, “evidenced” by the phrasing St. Paul spoke. I’ve been trying and trying to figure out what’s the proper evidence to use to answer this man, and thus disprove this weird theory. I don’t know his religious affiliation, but he did say “we.”
If that were true, wouldn’t The Lord let Peter in on the declaration as well, like He enlightened Peter about the gentiles with the whole “blanket of forbidden animals” vision? Plus, wouldn’t Peter have officiated a notice to the collective Church about that, in which told the Apostles to stop in the Bible, like he did with the Jewish rituals discontinuation in Acts 15? Also, every post-biblical saint that the Catholic Church has canonized that has spoken about physical baptism by water through the Church rigidly maintains it’s activity, vitality and necessity. Baptism is too vital and necessary an element of entry to be left foggy and unclear.
This man’s convinced by this theory that baptism by humans in water, and Baptism by God of the Holy Spirit and by fire are 2 DIFFERENT BAPTISMS, and so “one body, one faith, one baptism” means one of them is done away with - and it’s not The Lord God’s.
Help! How do I explain this rightly, without twisting the bible and correct doctrine, and/or confusing people?