No, this is not a thread on when exactly virginity is lost (although that is an interesting issue I may bring up someday). I was wondering where the Church actually defined that Mary was a perpetual virgin. I am aware that she is thusly referred to by a Council or two, but is a passing title equivalent to an actual definition?
I also need more information on Matthew 1:25. The example I heard for years from apologists is where the Bible says Jesus will “reign until the end of time”. Yet there is a clear reason for saying the Bible saying that, because the end of time is an end of our “life choices”, so it makes sense that Jesus could still reign after then without contradicting that verse. But why did Matthew say Joseph did not consummate the marriage until Jesus was born? If it had said that they did consummate until He was conceived, that would make sense, because the virgin birth is clearly what is being protected by the verse. But why does verse 25 say “until she gave birth”?