Was God different in the OT?

As you can see I have many things on my mind (this is my 3rd new thread today :-).
I have started reading the bible from front to back. I did read it before, but that has been years ago and I guess I just didn’t see things as clearly then as I do now.
My question is this: Why was God so different in the OT? He allowed sex out of wedlock and didn’t seem to be upset with those who drank too much wine. He came down to earth and ate, drank, and wrestled with humans. If God knows all, why did He change things so much in the NT?

Thanks!

It’s kind of a broad question to answer, do you have specific verses or stories that you are confused about? That might be helpful.

In general, the way I see it, people did all the same things in the OT, NT, and now! God “allows” sin because He wants us to CHOOSE Him - not be forced into loving Him. This whole time on earth is really a test of sorts, to see if we choose God or sin. While God knows the end result because He is all-knowing, it is our choice to accept or reject His grace.

When did God eat, drink, and wrestle with Humans? Certainly Jesus ate and drank, did He wrestle with humans? Do you have questions as to why God manifested Himself in a human body (Jesus) and came to live among us?

God bless,

This is something I have often pondered, especially in relation to the destruction of the first born of Egypt in the OT and Jesus comments about children in the NT.

It has been explained to me that God has not changed but has remained constant. We have changed as God has revealed more of himself and his plan to us- it is in fact our understanding of him that has changed, not God himself.

I’'m mostly speaking of Genesis. Gen 32: 22-30 God wrestled with Jacob.
In Genesis 29 Jacob was married to both Leah and Rachel. Also, when Rachel could not bear children she gave Jacob her servant, so that he could have relations with her and bear a child for herself and Jacob. From what I have read so far God did allow the men to have more than one wife and to have relations with women they were not married to.
Some became drunk after drinking wine and there is no mention of God reprimanding them for this. So, my question is, why, if God knows everything, did He allow these things in the beginning, but changed. Like with Moses. A man had to give a decree of divorce, but in the NT divorce is strictly forbidden.

God bless,

awalt,

No, I undertand (as best anyone can be expected to) why Jesus came. I’m speaking of the OT.
I may be wrong, but was God not one of the men who sat and ate and drank with Abrahm in Gen. 18: 1-8??

God is our Father. If we consider the whole of the Bible as the salvation history of God’s people (as Scott Hahn calls it) we can view it as a Father raising His children.

When in infancy, a father must guide differently than when they are toddlers, and when they are adolescents, and teenagers, and young adults, and then as adults. A father might discipline more harshly at times, allow more rebellion seemingly without punishment at time, etc. Then, later on, having given the chilren all they need to know how to live, having given them the tools they need to succeed, a father might take a more subtle role in the lives of his children, still there whenever needed, still guiding, consoling, answering questions, even correcting, but in a different way then when they were immature.

I think most of the questions like you are asking can be answered in that light. For example, regarding divorce. Jesus said it was because of their stubbornness that divorce was permitted, but it was not what God intended. Now that Jesus as given us the grace to live according to God’s plan, it no longer is allowed, for there is no reason for God to allow it.

Make sense?

Spot on Chris.

7"Why then," they asked, “did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?” 8Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.

[quote=Chris W]God is our Father. If we consider the whole of the Bible as the salvation history of God’s people (as Scott Hahn calls it) we can view it as a Father raising His children.

When in infancy, a father must guide differently than when they are toddlers, and when they are adolescents, and teenagers, and young adults, and then as adults. A father might discipline more harshly at times, allow more rebellion seemingly without punishment at time, etc. Then, later on, having given the chilren all they need to know how to live, having given them the tools they need to succeed, a father might take a more subtle role in the lives of his children, still there whenever needed, still guiding, consoling, answering questions, even correcting, but in a different way then when they were immature.

I think most of the questions like you are asking can be answered in that light. For example, regarding divorce. Jesus said it was because of their stubbornness that divorce was permitted, but it was not what God intended. Now that Jesus as given us the grace to live according to God’s plan, it no longer is allowed, for there is no reason for God to allow it.

Make sense?
[/quote]

Yes, it does and thank you.

Kudos to you for going to the Scriptures for an understanding of God. That’s the major way He reveals Himself to us.

Keep reading. I’m sure you are.

And don’t expect to have all your questions answered in the first read through. But probably more questions will come up, and I’m positive that some of them will be answered by the reading of Scripture itself.

  • Rob

[quote=Chris W]God is our Father. If we consider the whole of the Bible as the salvation history of God’s people (as Scott Hahn calls it) we can view it as a Father raising His children.

When in infancy, a father must guide differently than when they are toddlers, and when they are adolescents, and teenagers, and young adults, and then as adults. A father might discipline more harshly at times, allow more rebellion seemingly without punishment at time, etc. Then, later on, having given the chilren all they need to know how to live, having given them the tools they need to succeed, a father might take a more subtle role in the lives of his children, still there whenever needed, still guiding, consoling, answering questions, even correcting, but in a different way then when they were immature.

I think most of the questions like you are asking can be answered in that light. For example, regarding divorce. Jesus said it was because of their stubbornness that divorce was permitted, but it was not what God intended. Now that Jesus as given us the grace to live according to God’s plan, it no longer is allowed, for there is no reason for God to allow it.

Make sense?
[/quote]

Excellent post. In one of the Biblical letters, the author describes the law using a word that doesn’t have a direct English translation. The word refers to someone who monitors a child’s expenditures in the case of an inheritance at a young age. When the child comes of age, the man is no longer needed. Basically the Jews are like the young child who receives an inheritance. A servant (the Law) is assigned to make sure he is careful with his money. Once the Jewish faith came of age (fullfillment by Christ), the Law was no longer needed.

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