In the garden of Gethsemane, Jesus prayed , Father thy will be done. My understanding of this is that it was never the Father’s will for Jesus to experience the suffering and Jesus knew this and was not referring to this in prayer. Jesus was however referring to the will of the Father that Jesus will be resurrected and thus salvation will be made available to mankind. As for the the suffering , the Father allowed this to happen because of it’s redemptive purpose in the end. Whose will is the suffering of Jesus then ? It is the evil will of the people who put Him to death? If this is the case , was there wlaos a possibility that the people’s will may not have lead to Jesus’s suffering and yet Salvation can have still be attained ?
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Why would a loving God have His Son die such a horrific death?