well I thought I had given a good argument for Christ not being born with a sinful nature but then I get this back:
“Adam and Eve were not BORN under the Curse of the Fall, or BIRTHED by a woman under the Curse of the Fall. The Son of Man was BORN with the Sin Nature/ability to sin, be tempted The Son of GOD could NOT be tempted, therefore did NOT sin WHY? So that Jesus Christ could be our sympathetic High Priest, understanding exactly what Fallen Man is going thru because He experienced it…… Heb 4:15 For we have not a High Priest which can not be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in ALL points tempted LIKE AS WE, yet without sin.”
James 1:13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of GOD for GOD can NOT be tempted with evil …." Heb 2:16-18 "Wherefore in ALL things it behooved Him to be made LIKE unto his brethren that He might be a merciful and faithful High Priest in things to GOD, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people. For in that He Himself being tempted, He is able to help them that are tempted.
Heb 5:2-3 “Who can have compassion on the ignorant and on them that go astray; for that He Himself also is compassed with infirmity.” You reject the words of GOD because they do not line up with your ‘traditions of men’ (Mark 7:5-9,13).
I noticed that you did NOT use ANY Inspired Scripture to back up your erroneous claim…. In order for these Words of GOD to be correct, that would mean that mary was a sinner which gave birth to Jesus who also had the Sin Nature/ability to sin……"
so what am I missing here? is there a named heresy for this idea? is there scripture that proves that Jesus was not born with the sin of Adam? I just feel like I’m not getting it.