In the following post, I’ve decided to investigate claims that Jesus was gay and refute them. The claims are often made by atheists but there’s been even a few Christians who back the claims all based on a ridiculous argument that is easily refuted by a little research.
Normally, however, I find the claims are made mostly by anti-Christian atheists after being unable to continue with their vehement denial of the historical existence of Jesus when they encounter the historical evidence, so they jump onto the next band-wagon: character assassination.
Christianity forbids homosexuality and despite the continued growth of a progressive liberal Christianity, many Christians still hold the notion that homosexuality is wrong. The idea then that Jesus was gay would be quite blasphemous to the majority of Christians. Many anti-Christians and atheists, knowing this, often trout the nonsense that Jesus was gay in a pathetic attempt to either wind Christians up or as part of their crusade to “destroy” Christianity (something that internet atheism will never achieve), think this false fact will convert Christians.
I imagine half of those who promote this nonsense are simply trolling. I remember back in the days when I used YouTube, I encountered an atheist troll who had created a video on this very subject matter and although he is now suspended for his harassing and targeting of Christians (so all of his videos are removed) I still remember the argument in the video. The argument was as follows: The Gospel of John writes of the “disciple whom Jesus loved” ergo Jesus was in a homosexual relationship. Get wrecked Christians.
This is the major argument used by those who promote the “Jesus was gay” myth. In using it, its promoters express their down-right ignorance of the gospels and understanding of terms being used. Most of those who use this argument to say Jesus was gay, think the Gospel of John is referencing John himself, in fact there is nothing to suggest this and in fact the ending sentence of the gospel reveals this stating “This is the disciple who testifies to these things and who wrote them down. We know that his testimony is true” revealing it is the testimony of another person rather than the author. Some scholars have suggested the disciple to be James, the blood brother of Jesus. This makes sense as it would be odd for the author of John to reference himself in third person. This view is shared by the majority of Biblical scholars who believe the text of John went through two or more editions before reaching its current form.
Now the main argument used to back the claim that Jesus was gay, is that “the disciple whom Jesus loved” here is referring to some sort of relationship. The Gospel of John in fact claims that Jesus loves many people. In John 11:5 it is stated “…Jesus loved Martha, her sister and Lazarus” according to logic of the Jesus was gay argument we now have Jesus engaged in a bisexual incestuous three-way!
Putting this terrible reasoning aside and we simply see love here being used as a term to reference that Jesus cared about these people. We also have no reason to believe that the “beloved disciple” truly was beloved as a unique person by Jesus since no other gospel references anyone by this title. It seems more like that this term was being used here by the writer to put this disciple above all the others.
Another argument used to say Jesus was gay was that he had male followers (pretty much like any religious leader back in the day) ergo he was a homosexual. Get wrecked Christians and praise Dawkins (who himself mainly has male followers so I guess he must…uhh…be gay too).
This of course is another terrible argument and it is also untrue. Jesus was unique in having many female followers.
Mark 15:40-41 says the following:
“There were also some women looking on from a distance, among whom were Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James the Less and Joses, and Salome. When He was in Galilee, they used to follow Him and minister to Him, and there were many other women who came up with Him.”
Luke 8:1-3 meanwhile declares that Jesus and his followers had women following them, “contributing to their support out of private means” so already we have a picture of a unique religious leader of his time to have many female followers who also contributed to his ministry.
In John 20:16, Mary calls Jesus “Rabbi” meaning teacher. Why would she call him teacher if he did not teach her as he did the 12 disciples?
In fact, after resurrecting, the first person Jesus revealed himself to was a woman: Mary Magdalene. In fact in the Gnostic Gospel of Philip, one verse has Jesus kiss Mary Magdalene. The passage, missing a few words is as follows:
"As for Wisdom who is called “the barren”, she is the mother [of the] angels. And the companion of the …] Mary Magdalene. … loved] her more than [all] the disciples [and used to] kiss her [often] on her …]. The rest of [the disciples…] They said to him, “Why do you love her more than all of us?” The Savior answered and said to them, “Why do I not love you like her? When a blind man and one who sees are both together in the darkness, they are no different from one another. When the light comes, then he who sees will see the light, and he who is blind will remain in darkness”
So if we were to have Jesus in a relationship with anyone, it would be with Mary Magdalene. Most scholars believe the following word after “kiss her often on her” was either hand or cheek, regardless, no gospel in or outside The Bible refers to Jesus kissing any of his male followers.