Mary was born without original sin, her and John the Baptist being the only two without original sin since Adam and Eve. However, was it possible for her, like Adam and Eve, to turn her back on God through a new original sin? If so, this makes her perpetual sinlessness even more astounding. (I think that’s dogma, but I don’t know for sure.)
Also, is her perpetual sinlessness due only to being “full of grace” or in part also due to her fiat?
I ask these questions because a passage from C.S. Lewis’ Miracles seems ripe for exploration:
After the knowledge of God had been universally lost or obscured, one man from the whole earth (Abraham) is picked out. He is separated (miserably enough, we may suppose) from his natural surroundings, sent into a strange country, and made the ancestor of a nation who are to carry the knowledge of the true God. Within this nation there is further selection: some die in the desert, some remain behind in Babylon. There is further selection still. The process grows narrower and narrower, sharpens at last into one small bright point like the head of a spear. It is a Jewish girl at her prayers. All humanity (so far as concerns its redemption) has narrowed to that.
This wide view of history seems apt. I don’t want to take it too far, though.