[quote=John Taylor]The following is an article that explains well to me how Mary would have remained a virgin in the light of the fact that “God had conducted himself as a husband in regard to Mary.”
PERPETUAL VIRGINITY OF MARY
by Brother Anthony M. Opisso, M.D.,
The following points are developed:
- “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the Holy one to be born shall be called the Son of God” (Lk 1:35).
By stating it in those terms the archangel declared to Mary that God would enter into a marital relationship with her, causing her to conceive His Son in her womb, For “to lay one’s power (reshuth) over a woman” (Targum to Dt 21:4) was a euphemism for “to have a marital relationship with her.”
Likewise “to overshadow” (Lk 1:35) by spreading the “wing” or “cloak” over a woman was another euphemism for marital relations.
- Joseph knew that God had conducted himself as a husband in regard to Mary. She was now prohibited to him for all time, and for the sake of the Child and Mary he could only live with her in an absolutely chaste relationship.
a) Mary was betrothed to Joseph, therefore, according to Jewish Law, they were considered “married” even though they were not yet living together.
b) Joseph discovers Mary’s pregnancy and know’s that the child is not his. Therefore, according to Jewish Law, Mary is no longer fit to be a wife and Joseph must divorce her.
c) It is only by God’s intervention through the message of an angel that Joseph is told not to divorce Mary - “Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife; for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit…” (Mt. 1:20-21). The angel does not use the phrase for marital union: “go in unto” (as in Gn 30:3, 4, 16)…but merely a word meaning leading her into the house as a wife (paralambano gunaika).
See: Strong’s Word #3880 (from Matthew 1:20) blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/words/3/1131942799-9297.html
According to Jewish Law, Mary would be forbidden to Joseph for all time. But since “God had conducted himself as a husband in regard to Mary” and had given Joseph the instructions to “take Mary as your wife” (in the sense of “an associate, a companion” as per the Greek “paralambano” - and not in the conjugal sense of “go in unto”) Joseph would have known that he was to conduct himself as a celibate caretaker - providing for Mary, the mother of his Lord, and for Jesus, his Lord.
Keep the Faith
May I steal your post for the purposes of my discussions with others?
However, one thing must be cleared up:
Since Joseph was already married to Mary, does that mean Mary and God committed adultery, technically?
I know it sounds stupid, but it makes sense, but at the same time it doesn’t, since God cannot sin.