I was raised in a Protestant home, but I feel myself really being called to Catholicism (after some years of being unaffiliated and wrestling with some serious doubts). A struggle I have is how does the church validate the idea that Mary was perpetually sinless? Catholic friends have told me that it deals with her having to have been sinless in order to have mothered Jesus, who was sinless (of course). But by that same logic (and I’m not being disrespectful, I genuinely want to understand), wouldn’t Elizabeth, and her mother, and her mother before her also have had to be sinless?
Thank you for your time and attention.