Being sinless and free from original sin wouldn’t Mary need no savoir?
You might find this article from Catholic Answers to be useful: catholic.com/magazine/articles/hail-mary-conceived-without-sin
She was sinless and free of original sin BECAUSE she has a Savior. Remember, she says her soul rejoices in “God my savior”. I won’t pretend to know exactly how God’s saving Grace was imparted to her, but I imagine it was not so different that Adam and Eve being created without original sin and being free from sin up until they actually sinned.
That’s a great article! One thing that Tim did not mention in there was Paul’s reference to Psalm 14. There are many times in Scripture where the author points us to a passage from the OT (for example, Christ, while on the cross, brings us to recall Psalm 22). When Paul writes that none are righteous in Romans, he is writing in the context of Psalm 14 which reads:
The fool says in his heart,
“There is no God.”
They are corrupt, their deeds are vile;
there is no one who does good.
2 The Lord looks down from heaven
on all mankind
to see if there are any who understand,
any who seek God.
3 All have turned away, all have become corrupt;
there is no one who does good,
not even one.
4 Do all these evildoers know nothing?
They devour my people as though eating bread;
they never call on the Lord.
5 But there they are, overwhelmed with dread,
for God is present in the company of the righteous.
6 You evildoers frustrate the plans of the poor,
but the Lord is their refuge.
7 Oh, that salvation for Israel would come out of Zion!
When the Lord restores his people,
let Jacob rejoice and Israel be glad!
If Paul is telling us that there are absolutely NONE that are righteous, then who are these “company of the righteous” in verse 5 of Psalm 14? And what is the difference between “these evildoers” and “my people” that they are devouring? Read that Psalm and see what it is actually saying, and then read Paul again.
Something else to consider: If “none are righteous” means that absolutely none [except Christ] are righteous, then why does Gen 6:9 say that Noah was “righteous”? Why does 1Samuel 26:23 say someone will be rewarded for his “righteousness”, and who is this “righteous” man in 2Sam 4:11 and 22:21-25? 1Kings 2:32, 8:32? Psalm 92:12? Proverbs 29:16? Daniel 13:3? James 5:16? Mt 1:19 calls Joseph righteous, as does Lk 23:50. Simeon is righteous according to Lk 2:25 and so were John’s parents in Lk 1:6.
I found 541 references to “righteous” in a word search at biblegateway.com. A huge portion were about MEN who are righteous.
This is just my understanding, though I’m sure there are better answers:
Yes, Mary was saved by Christ’s death, but AHEAD OF TIME.
Mary was redeemed at the very moment of her existence, BY
the merit of Jesus Christ, for the role Mary would play as the
Mother of God.
So Mary is both sinless from conception but still
dependent on Christ her both son and Savior.
I think She was saved the same day God did create Her. She had a special thing to do, so She never did die.
Or, put into our terminology, if I can buy and drive a pickup on the basis of money that I will be earning over the course of the next six years, then God, Who exists outside of time, can “save” Mary from the moment of her conception on the basis of Christ’s sacrifice on the cross, which was in the future in comparison with Mary’s conception in our time-line, but was concurrent with her conception as God sees them in eternity.