Some who promote “gay marriage” say that, in the past, marriage was more restricted than it is today. They point to some states’ ban on inter-racial marriages (true), but then claim that during the Middle Ages only those in the noble classes were allowed to marry.
I majored in medieval history in college and have never once seen any suggestion of this. Is there evidence supporting that claim? Put another way, on what, if anything, do the claimants rely as proof? On the contrary, is there evidence that marriage was in fact open to all classes? Thank you.