These are related questions regarding infant baptism. It was proposed by a sincere, albeit “sola Scriptura” Protestant struggling with this doctrine and I do not know how to answer the question.
Infant baptism is valid because the faith of the parents allows them to “speak” for their child until their child is able to reject/accept the faith. Lots of Scripture is available to back that up.
What if the parents do not believe? What if they are merely performing a ritual with only cultural significance and this is not found out prior to the baptism (i.e., dishonesty)?
Does the baptism “count” since the requisite of faith is not there?